Questions. . .
Up Bible Historical? The Real Jesus Questions. . .



In Mark 13:32 Jesus declared that he does not know when the day of Judgement will occur.  Since Jesus had this limitation in his knowledge then he was not God.  Is there anything that God does not know?

Many Christians say that Jesus was fully God and fully man at the same time.  Did Jesus have a human soul?  If so then he was a complete human being with the Spirit of God dwelling in him.  But the spirit of God in a human does not make the human into God. Notice that Barnabas was also full of the Holy Spirit (Acts 11:24).

The Bible says that Jesus was like us in every way apart from sin.  Was Jesus aware that he was God?  If yes, then he was not like us since we do not think we are God.  But if Jesus was not aware that he was God, then he is not like God either since God obviously knows himself.



Moses said that God is one (Deuteronomy 6:4).  Jesus said that God is one (Mark 12:27).  But some Christians say that God is one in three.  If they really follow Jesus and Moses should they not say exactly what Jesus and Moses said?

If we put three cakes together to make a bigger cake then we end up with a bigger cake.  So when we put the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost together do we not get a bigger God than any of the individual three?

1st John chapter 5, verse 7 used to say that there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one.  But because this verse was discovered to be a later insertion, it has now been correctly removed from modern translations.  Do you think it is possible that other passages in the Bible may likewise be later additions?



In Judges 11:24 we read that the true God Yahweh gave some land to the people of Israel.  But the same verse also says that another God Chemosh gave some other land to the Ammonite people.  Since the Bible declares that there is only one God, how could Chemosh even exist to give land to his worshippers?

According to 2nd Kings chapter 3 the Spirit of God came upon the prophet Elisha and declared that God will deliver the Moab people into the hands of Israel (verse 18).  But then, while this prophecy was about to be fulfilled, the king of Moab sacrificed his first-born son as a burnt offering.  Then the wrath upon Israel was so great that they gave up the siege and returned to their own land (verse 27).  How could a pagan child-sacrifice cause the Godís prophecy to fail?

According to Judges chapter 1 God was with Judah driving out the people and clearing the land for his chosen people.  But verse 19 surprises us by saying that God could not drive out the people of the plain because they had chariots of iron.  Is God limited in his power or is there something else wrong here?

Ezekiel chapter 23 describes the prostitution of two sisters.  It seems that the point can be made without all the graphic detail.  But then verse 20 surprises us by describing the private parts of the men involved.  If you think this is necessary for the moral lesson, could you please read for us starting from verse 1?  Or how about from verse 11?  Or just verse 20?



St. Anselm of Canterbury said that it was necessary for God to come down and pay the penalty for sin because the penalty was so great.  Who died on the cross?  If God, then who ran the world?  But if man, then how could the sacrifice of one man pay for the whole world?

If someone pays my fine, even if I do not like that person, then the government can no longer demand payment from me.  If Jesus paid my debt, then God can no longer demand it from me.  How could God still punish sinners after Jesus died for us all.

The Bible says that Jesus was a ransom sacrifice who died to set us free.  Is this ransom paid to God or to the Devil?  If to God, then why did God kill his own son to set us free when he could have just set us free and keep his son?  If the ransom was paid to the devil, then how could the devil be on such great bargaining terms with God to demand his very son?